[2017 New] Free Download Lead2pass Cisco 300-320 VCE And PDF Dumps (226-250)

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QUESTION 226
Which two design concerns must be addressed when designing a multicast implementation? (Choose two.)

A.    only the low-order 23 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
B.    only the low-order 24 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
C.    only the high-order 23 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
D.    only the low-order 23 bits of the IP address are used to map MAC addresses
E.    the 0x01004f MAC address prefix is used for mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses
F.    the 0x01005e MAC address prefix is used for mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses

Answer: AF

QUESTION 227
Which two of these are characteristics of multicast routing? (Choose two.)

A.    multicast routing uses RPF.
B.    multicast routing is connectionless.
C.    In multicast routing, the source of a packet is known.
D.    When network topologies change, multicast distribution trees are not rebuilt, but use the original path
E.    Multicast routing is much like unicast routing, with the only difference being that it has a a group of receivers rather than just one destination

Answer: AC

QUESTION 228
Which of the following is most accurate with respect to designing high availability within the Enterprise Campus network?

A.    High availability at and between the Distribution and Access layers is as simple as redundant switches and redundant Layer 3 connections
B.    Non-deterministic traffic patterns require a highly available modular topology design
C.    Distribution layer high availability design includes redundant switches and Layer 3 equal-cost load sharing connections to the switched Access and routed Core layers, with a Layer 3 link between the Distribution switches to support summarization of routing information from the Distribution to the Core
D.    Default gateway redundancy allows for the failure of a redundant Distribution switch without affecting endpoint connectivity

Answer: D

QUESTION 229
Which of the following should the Enterprise Campus network designer consider with respect to Video traffic?

A.    While it is expected that the sum of all forms of video traffic will grow to over 90% by 2013, the
Enterprise will be spared this rapid adoption of video by consumers through a traditional top-down approach
B.    Avoid bandwidth starvation due to video traffic by preventing and controlling the wide adoption
of unsupported video applications
C.    Which traffic model is in use, the flow direction for the traffic streams between the application
components, and the traffic trends for each video application
D.    Streaming video applications are sensitive to delay while interactive video applications, using
TCP as the underlying transport, are fairly tolerant of delay and jitter

Answer: C

QUESTION 230
Which two design recommendations are most appropriate when OSPF is the data center core routing protocol? (Choose two.)

A.    Never use passive interfaces.
B.    Use NSSA areas from the core down.
C.    Use totally stub areas to stop type 3 LSAs.
D.    Use the lowest Ethernet interface IP address as the router ID.
E.    Manipulate the reference bandwidth.

Answer: BE

QUESTION 231
A client security policy requires separate management control planes for different divisions with the company, which technology can be used to achieve this requirement while minimizing physical devices ?

A.    Virtual routing and forwarding
B.    Virtual device contexts
C.    Virtual Switching System
D.    Virtual Local Area Networks
E.     Virtual port channels

Answer: B

QUESTION 232
Which three Layer 2 access designs have all of their uplinks in an active state? (Choose three.)

A.    Flex Links
B.    loop-free U
C.    looped square
D.    looped triangle
E.    loop-free inverted U

Answer: BCE

QUESTION 233
Which three statements about Network Attached Storage are correct? (Choose three.)

A.    Data is accessed using NFS or CIFS.
B.    Data is accessed at the block level.
C.    NAS is referred to as captive storage.
D.    Storage devices can be shared between servers.
E.    A NAS implementation is not as fast as a DAS implementation.

Answer: ADE

QUESTION 234
In a collapsed core design, which three benefits are provided by a second-generation Cisco MDS director? (Choose three.)

A.    a higher fan-out ratio
B.    fully redundant switches
C.    100 percent port efficiency
D.    all ISLs contained within a single chassis
E.    higher latency and throughput than a core-edge design switch

Answer: BCD

QUESTION 235
Which two statements about both FCIP and iSCSI are correct? (Choose two.)

A.    They support file-level storage for remote devices.
B.    They require high throughput with low latency and low jitter.
C.    Their purpose is to provide connectivity between host and storage.
D.    They support block-level storage for remote devices.
E.    Their purpose is to provide connectivity between separate wide-area SANs.

Answer: DE

QUESTION 236
Which three statements about zoning are correct? (Choose three.)

A.    Zoning increases security.
B.    DNS queries are used for software zoning.
C.    Software zoning is more secure than hardware zoning.
D.    When using zones and VSANs together, the zone is created first.
E.    Zoning requires that VSANs be established before it becomes operational.

Answer: ABE

QUESTION 237
What are two characteristics of Server Load Balancing router mode? (Choose two.)

A.    The design supports multiple server subnets.
B.    An end-user sees the IP address of the real server.
C.    SLB routes between the outside and inside subnets.
D.    The source or destination MAC address is rewritten, but the IP addresses left alone.
E.    SLB acts as a “bump in the wire” between servers and upstream firewall or Layer 3 devices.

Answer: AC

QUESTION 238
What are two characteristics of Cisco Global Site Selector? (Choose two.)

A.    It helps verify end-to-end path availability.
B.    It provides traffic rerouting in case of disaster.
C.    HSRP, GLBP, and VRRP can be clients of GSS.
D.    BGP must be the routing protocol between the distributed data centers.
E.    DNS responsiveness is improved by providing centralized domain management.

Answer: BE

QUESTION 239
Drag and Drop Question

 

Answer:

 

QUESTION 240
Drag and Drop Question

 

Answer:

 

QUESTION 241
Refer to the exhibit. Which recommended practice is applicable?

 

A.    If no core layer is deployed, the design will be easier to scale.
B.    A dedicated campus core layer should be deployed for connecting three or more buildings.
C.    If no core layer is deployed, the distribution switches should not be fully meshed.
D.    A dedicated campus core layer is not needed for connecting fewer than five buildings.

Answer: B

QUESTION 242
When a router has to make a rate transition from LAN to WAN, what type of congestion needs should be considered in the network design?

A.    RX-queue deferred
B.    TX-queue deferred
C.    RX-queue saturation
D.    TX-queue saturation
E.    RX-queue starvation
F.    TX-queue starvation

Answer: F
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Campus/HA_campus_DG/hacampusdg.html

QUESTION 243
To which switch or switches should you provide redundant links in order to achieve high availability with reliable fast convergence in the enterprise campus?

A.    to a core switch running Cisco NSF and SSO from redundant distribution switches connected with
a Layer 2 link
B.    to a core switch running Cisco NSF and SSO from redundant distribution switches connected with
a Layer 3 link
C.    to two core switches from redundant distribution switches connected with a Layer 2 link
D.    to two core switches from redundant distribution switches connected with a Layer 3 link
E.    to two core switches running Cisco NSF and SSO from two redundant distribution switches running Cisco NSF and SSO

Answer: D

QUESTION 244
Which of these statements is correct regarding Stateful Switchover and Cisco Nonstop Forwarding?

A.    Utilizing Cisco NSF in Layer 2 environments can reduce outages to one to three seconds.
B.    Utilizing SSO in Layer 3 environments can reduce outages to one to three seconds.
C.    Distribution switches are single points of failure causing outages for the end devices.
D.    Utilizing Cisco NSF and SSO in a Layer 2 environment can reduce outages to less than one second.
E.    NSF and SSO with redundant supervisors have the most impact on outages at the access layer.

Answer: E

QUESTION 245
When is a first-hop redundancy protocol needed in the distribution layer?

A.    when the design implements Layer 2 between the access and distribution blocks
B.    when multiple vendor devices need to be supported
C.    when preempt tuning of the default gateway is needed
D.    when a robust method of backing up the default gateway is needed
E.    when the design implements Layer 2 between the access switch and the distribution blocks

Answer: A

QUESTION 246
Which of these is a recommended practice with trunks?

A.    use ISL encapsulation
B.    use 802.1q encapsulation
C.    set ISL to desirable and auto with encapsulation negotiate to support ILS protocol negotiation
D.    use VTP server mode to support dynamic propagation of VLAN information across the network

Answer: B

QUESTION 247
Which of the following is a recommended practice of a data center core?

A.    Server-to-server traffic always remains in the core layer.
B.    The core infrastructure should be in Layer 3.
C.    Core layer should run BGP along with an IGP because iBGP has a lower administrative distance than any IGP.
D.    The Cisco Express Forwarding hashing algorithm is the default, based on the IP address and Layer 4 port.

Answer: B

QUESTION 248
Which statement about data center access layer design modes is correct?

A.    The access layer is the first oversubscription point in a data center design.
B.    The data center access layer provides the physical-level connections to the server resources and only operates at Layer 3.
C.    When using a Layer 2 looped design, VLANs are not extended into the aggregation layer.
D.    When using a Layer 3 design, stateful services requiring Layer 2 connectivity are provisioned from the aggregation layer.

Answer: A

QUESTION 249
Which two design recommendations are most appropriate when EIGRP is the data center core routing protocol? (Choose two.)

A.    Summarize data center subnets.
B.    Use passive interfaces to ensure appropriate adjacencies.
C.    Tune the EIGRP timers to enable EIGRP to achieve quicker convergence.
D.    Adjust the default bandwidth value to ensure proper bandwidth on all links.
E.    Advertise a default summary route into the data center core from the aggregation layer.

Answer: AB
Explanation:
“Here are some recommendations on EIGRP design for the data center core layer:
· Advertise a default summary route into the data center access layer with the ip summary- address eigrp interface command on the aggregation layer. · If other default routes exist in the network, such as from the Internet edge, you might need to filter them using distribute lists.
· Summarize the data center access layer subnets with the ip summary-address eigrp interface command from the aggregation layer.
· Use the passive-interface default command, and advertise only on the links that need to participate in the routing process using the no passive-interface interface command.”

QUESTION 250
Which two practices will avoid Cisco Express Forwarding polarization?(Choose two.)

 

A.    The core layer should use default Layer 3 hash information.
B.    The core layer should use default Layer 4 hash information.
C.    The distribution layer should use default Layer 3 hash information.
D.    The distribution layer should use default Layer 4 hash information.
E.    The core layer should use Layer 3 and Layer 4 information as input to the Cisco Expressing Forwarding hashing algorithm.
F.    The distribution layer should use Layer 3 and Layer 4 information as input into the Cisco Expressing Forwarding hashing algorithm.

Answer: AF

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