[Lead2pass New] 400-101 Exam Questions Free Download From Lead2pass (561-580)

admin   October 23, 2017   Comments Off on [Lead2pass New] 400-101 Exam Questions Free Download From Lead2pass (561-580)

Lead2pass 2017 October New Cisco 400-101 Exam Dumps!

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Following questions and answers are all new published by Cisco Official Exam Center: https://www.lead2pass.com/400-101.html

QUESTION 561
Which statement about OTV is true?

A.    The overlay interface becomes active only when configuration is complete and it is manually enabled.
B.    OTV data groups can operate only in PIM sparse-mode.
C.    The overlay interface becomes active immediately when it is configured.
D.    The interface facing the OTV groups must be configured with the highest MTU possible.

Answer: A

QUESTION 562
Refer to the exhibit. Which two configuration changes enable the user admin to log in to the device? (Choose two.)

 

A.    Configure the login authentication to be case-insensitive.
B.    Configure the user admin with a password and appropriate privileges.
C.    Configure the login authentication to be case-sensitive.
D.    Modify the configuration to use a named group.
E.    Configure additional login authentication under the terminal lines.

Answer: AB

QUESTION 563
Which two advantages does CoPP have over receive path ACLs? (Choose two.)

A.    Only CoPP applies to IP packets and non-IP packets.
B.    Only CoPP applies to receive destination IP packets.
C.    A single instance of CoPP can be applied to all packets to the router, while rACLs require multiple instances.
D.    Only CoPP can rate-limit packets.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 564
Which command drops packets with unknown source addresses until you remove a sufficient number of secure MAC addresses to drop below the maximum value, and also causes the Security Violation counter to increment?

A.    switchport port-security violation protect
B.    switchport port-security violation drop
C.    switchport port-security violation shutdown
D.    switchport port-security violation restrict

Answer: D

QUESTION 565
Which two tasks are required for configuring SNMP to send traps on a Cisco IOS device? (Choose two.)

A.    Create access controls for an SNMP community.
B.    Configure SNMP notifications.
C.    Configure the SNMP agent.
D.    Configure SNMP status monitoring and troubleshooting.
E.    Configure SNMP server group names.
F.    Configure the SNMP server engine ID.

Answer: AB

QUESTION 566
Which two statements about SNMP traps are true? (Choose two.)

A.    They are sent by an agent after a specified event.
B.    They are sent when solicited after a specified event.
C.    They are equivalent to a community string.
D.    They provide solicited data to the manager.
E.    They are sent by a management station to an agent.
F.    Vendor-specific traps can be configured.

Answer: AF

QUESTION 567
A configuration includes the line ip nbar port-map SSH tcp 22 23 443 8080. Which option describes the effect of this configuration line?

A.    It configures NBAR to search for SSH using ports 22, 23, 443, and 8080.
B.    It configures NBAR to allow SSH connections only on ports 22, 23, 443, and 8080.
C.    It enables NBAR to inspect for SSH connections.
D.    It creates a custom NBAR port-map named SSH and associates TCP ports 22, 23, 443, and 8080 to itself.

Answer: A

QUESTION 568
Which configuration sets a minimum quality of service on a Layer 2 access switch?

A.    mls qos cos override
mls qos cos 2
B.    mls qos cos 2
C.    mls qos trust cos
mls qos cos 2
D.    mls qos trust cos
E.    mls qos trust dscp

Answer: A

QUESTION 569
Which three statements about GLBP are true? (Choose three.)

A.    It uses a virtual MAC address that starts with 0070.b4.
B.    It elects a single active virtual gateway to appoint and manage multiple active virtual forwarders.
C.    It allows the configured virtual IP address to be used on a physical interface as well.
D.    It uses a virtual MAC address that starts with 0070.4b.
E.    It elects multiple active virtual gateways to appoint and manage a single active virtual forwarder.
F.    Preemption is enabled for the configured active virtual gateway by default.

Answer: ABC

QUESTION 570
Refer to the exhibit. If the route to 10.1.1.1 is removed from the R2 routing table, which server becomes the master NTP server?

 

A.    R2
B.    the NTP server at 10.3.3.3
C.    the NTP server at 10.4.4.4
D.    the NTP server with the lowest stratum number

Answer: D

QUESTION 571
Refer to the exhibit. Which feature can R1 use to fail over from R2 to R3 if the address for R2 becomes unavailable?

 

A.    object tracking
B.    HSRP
C.    GLBP
D.    LACP

Answer: A

QUESTION 572
Refer to the exhibit. Which two options are effects of the given configuration? (Choose two.)

 

A.    It sets the data export destination to 209.165.200.227 on UDP port 49152.
B.    It enables Cisco Express Forwarding on interface FastEthernet0/0.
C.    It configures the export process to include the BGP peer AS of the router gathering the data.
D.    It enables NetFlow switching on interface FastEthernet0/0.
E.    It sets the data export destination to 209.165.200.227 on TCP port 49152.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 573
Which three options are components of an EEM CLI policy? (Choose three.)

A.    Safe-Tcl
B.    applet name
C.    Fast Tcl
D.    event
E.    action
F.    Tcl bytecode

Answer: BDE

QUESTION 574
Which option is a core event publisher for EEM?

A.    Timer
B.    Policy Director
C.    Applet
D.    Script

Answer: A

QUESTION 575
Refer to the exhibit. You are configuring the S1 switch for the switch port that connects to the client computer. Which configuration blocks users on the port from using more than 6 Mbps of traffic and marks the traffic for a class of service of 1?

 

A.    
B.    

C.    

D.    

Answer: A

QUESTION 576
A TCP/IP host is able to transmit small amounts of data (typically less than 1500 bytes), but attempts to transmit larger amounts of data hang and then time out. What is the cause of this problem?

A.    A link is flapping between two intermediate devices.
B.    The processor of an intermediate router is averaging 90 percent utilization.
C.    A port on the switch that is connected to the TCP/IP host is duplicating traffic and sending it to a port
that has a sniffer attached.
D.    There is a PMTUD failure in the network path.

Answer: D

QUESTION 577
Refer to the exhibit. ICMP Echo requests from host A are not reaching the intended destination on host B. What is the problem?
 
A.    The ICMP payload is malformed.
B.    The ICMP Identifier (BE) is invalid.
C.    The negotiation of the connection failed.
D.    The packet is dropped at the next hop.
E.    The link is congested.

Answer: D

QUESTION 578
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?

 

A.    It is impossible for the destination interface to equal the source interface.
B.    NAT on a stick is performed on interface Et0/0.
C.    There is a potential routing loop.
D.    This output represents a UDP flow or a TCP flow.

Answer: C

QUESTION 579
Which three conditions can cause excessive unicast flooding? (Choose three.)

A.    Asymmetric routing
B.    Repeated TCNs
C.    The use of HSRP
D.    Frames sent to FFFF.FFFF.FFFF
E.    MAC forwarding table overflow
F.    The use of Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding

Answer: ABE

QUESTION 580
Refer to the exhibit. R10 in area 3 is not able to reach EIGRP routes that have been redistributed into OSPF on R7.
Which two actions can be taken to resolve this issue, while maintaining connectivity to BGP routes that are redistributed on r11? (Choose two)

 

A.    Change area 3 from NSSA to a stub area.
B.    Change area 3 from NSSA to a totally stubby area.
C.    Change area 3 from NSSA to a normal area.
D.    Change area 3 from NSSA to an NSSA totally stub area.

Answer: CD

More free Lead2pass 400-101 exam new questions on Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B3Syig5i8gpDZ0lrZUFjNWtFYlk

Cisco 400-101 exam questions are available in PDF and VCE format. This makes it very convenient for you to follow the course and study the exam whenever and wherever you want. The Cisco 400-101 exam questions follow the exact paper pattern and question type of the actual 400-101 certification exam, it lets you recreate the exact exam scenario, so you are armed with the correct information for the 400-101 certification exam.

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