Lead2pass 2017 September New Cisco 400-101 Exam Dumps!
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What is also called Type 0 authentication in OSPF on Cisco Routers?
B. There is no Type 0 authentication
These are the three different types of authentication supported by OSPF. Null Authentication–This is also called Type 0 and it means no authentication information is included in the packet header. It is the default.
Plain Text Authentication–This is also called Type 1 and it uses simple clear-text passwords. MD5 Authentication–This is also called Type 2 and it uses MD5 cryptographic passwords.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are correct, when the QoS configuration is applied in an outbound direction on a 10-Mb/s interface? (Choose two.)
A. When reaching 10 Mb/s of input rate, the video class will be policed to 200 kb/s.
B. The class FTP is allowed to reach more than 1 Mb/s in the event of congestion.
C. IP precedence 1 traffic is affected by a drop probability.
D. Video traffic above 200 kb/s is allowed to pass when the total interface output rate does not
reach 10 Mb/s.
E. Video traffic above 200 kb/s is allowed to pass when congestion is present.
Refer to the exhibit. A user with IP address 10.10.10.200 fails to use Telnet to a switch with IP address 10.10.20.2.
What is most likely the issue?
A. The switch is not configured with a default gateway.
B. The HTTP server is not enabled on the switch.
C. STP is blocking the connection from switch to router.
D. IP routing is enabled on the switch, but no route pointing back to the client is configured.
E. The switch is configured with an IP address from the wrong subnet.
As you can see in the exhibit that IP routing is enabled on the switch but no route is pointing back to the client. The ip address of interface vlan 1 is given but after that nothing!
Refer to the exhibit. Router RTB is performing one-way redistribution from RIP to OSPF. Which outgoing interface will router RTD choose for packets to the 192.168.0.0/24 network, and why?
A. Fa0/1, because OSPF is a link-state routing protocol
B. Fa0/0, because RIP is a distance vector protocol
C. Fa0/0, because RIP has a higher administrative distance
D. Fa0/0, because OSPF has a lower administrative distance
E. Fa0/1, because OSPF has a lower administrative distance
F. Fa0/1, because RIP has a lower administrative distance
Refer to the exhibit. What is the potential issue with this configuration?
A. There is no potential issue; OSPF will work fine in any condition.
B. Sub-optimal routing may occur since there is no area 1 adjacency between the ABRs.
C. This is a wrong OSPF configuration because all routers must be in area 0 only.
D. This is a wrong OSPF configuration because /30 requires 0.0.0.3 wild card.
The primary difference is that the GRE tunnel hides the real recipients under the outer IP header. The “transit” area, in that case, does not need to actually know all the prefixes. What it needs, though, is a default route that points towards the backbone. Suboptimal routing may occur, then, because the traffic from the “transit” area must first reach the backbone in order to get GRE- encapsulated and carried again through the “transit” area to the disconnected area.
Refer to the exhibit. What triggered the first SPF recalculation?
A. changes in a router LSA, subnet LSA, and external LSA
B. changes in a router LSA, summary network LSA, and external LSA
C. changes in a router LSA, summary network LSA, and summary ASBR LSA
D. changes in a router LSA, summary ASBR LSA, and external LSA
OSPFv2 is built around links, and any IP prefix change in an area will trigger a full SPF. It advertises IP information in Router and Network LSAs. The routers thus, advertise both the IP prefix information (or the connected subnet information) and topology information in the same LSAs. This implies that if an IP address attached to an interface changes, OSPF routers would have to originate a Router LSA or a Network LSA, which btw also carries the topology information. This would trigger a full SPF on all routers in that area, since the same LSAs are flooded to convey topological change information. This can be an issue with an access router or the one sitting at the edge, since many stub links can change regularly.
Only changes in interarea, external and NSSA routes result in partial SPF calculation (since type 3, 4, 5 and 7 LSAs only advertise IP prefix information) and thus IS-IS’s PRC is more pervasive than OSPF’s partial SPF.
This difference allows IS-IS to be more tolerant of larger single area domains whereas OSPF forces hierarchical designs for relatively smaller networks. However with the route leaking from L2 to L1 incorporated into IS-IS the apparent motivation for keeping large single area domains too goes away. SPF is calculated in three phases. The first is the calculation of intra-area routes by building the shortest path tree for each attached area. The second phase calculates the inter-area routes by examining the summary LSAs and the last one examines the AS-External-LSAs to calculate the routes to the external destinations.
Which two orders in the BGP Best Path Selection process are correct? (Choose two.)
A. Higher local preference, then lowest MED, then eBGP over iBGP paths
B. Higher local preference, then highest weight, then lowest router ID
C. Highest weight, then higher local preference, then shortest AS path
D. Lowest origin type, then higher local preference, then lowest router ID
E. Highest weight, then higher local preference, then highest MED
Weight is the first attribute BGP uses in the route selection process. Route with a higher weight is preferred when multiple routes exist to the same destination.
Refer to the exhibit. Which action must you take to enable full reachability from router C to router D?
A. Build an OSPF virtual link.
B. Build an OSPF sham link.
C. Configure mutual redistribution between OSPF and EIGRP on routers A and B.
D. Add a static route on router D.
Which two Cisco Express Forwarding tables are located in the data plane? (Choose two.)
A. the forwarding information base
B. the label forwarding information base
C. the IP routing table
D. the label information table
E. the adjacency table
Which option is the most effective action to avoid packet loss due to microbursts?
A. Implement larger buffers.
B. Install a faster CPU.
C. Install a faster network interface.
D. Configure a larger tx-ring size.
Which two statements about packet fragmentation on an IPv6 network are true? (Choose two.)
A. The fragment header is 64 bits long.
B. The identification field is 32 bits long.
C. The fragment header is 32 bits long.
D. The identification field is 64 bits long.
E. The MTU must be a minimum of 1280 bytes.
F. The fragment header is 48 bits long.
You are backing up a server with a 1 Gbps link and a latency of 2 ms. Which two statements about the backup are true? (Choose two.)
A. The bandwidth delay product is 2 Mb.
B. The default TCP send window size is the limiting factor.
C. The default TCP receive window size is the limiting factor.
D. The bandwidth delay product is 500 Mb.
E. The bandwidth delay product is 50 Mb.
Which two pieces of information does RTCP use to inform endpoint devices about the RTP flow? (Choose two.)
A. the transmitted octet
B. the lost packet count
C. session control function provisioning information
D. the CNAME for session participants
E. the authentication method
F. MTU size changes in the path of the flow
Which two options are required parts of an EEM policy? (Choose two.)
A. event register keyword
C. environment must defines
D. namespace import
E. entry status
F. exit status
Which two actions can you take to allow the greatest number of pertinent packets to be stored in the temporary buffer of Cisco IOS Embedded Packet Capture? (Choose two.)
A. Specify the sampling interval.
B. Specify the capture buffer type.
C. Specify a reflexive ACL.
D. Specify the minimum packet capture rate.
E. Specify the packet size.
F. Store the capture simultaneously onto an external memory card as the capture occurs.
Which technology can be used to secure the core of an STP domain?
B. BPDU guard
C. BPDU filter
D. root guard
What is the destination multicast MAC address for BPDUs on the native VLAN, for a switch that is running 802.1D?
A. 0185. C400. 0000
D. 0180. C200. 0000
Refer to the exhibit. All switches have default bridge priorities, and originate BPDUs with MAC addresses as indicated. The numbers shown are STP link metrics.
After STP converges, you discover that traffic from switch SWG toward switch SWD takes a less optimal path. What can you do to optimize the STP tree in this switched network?
A. Change the priority of switch SWA to a lower value than the default value.
B. Change the priority of switch SWB to a higher value than the default value.
C. Change the priority of switch SWG to a higher value than the default value.
D. Change the priority of switch SWD to a lower value than the default value.
Which three statements are true about VSS? (Choose three.)
A. VSS separates the control planes of the active and the standby chassis.
B. Configuration changes can be made on both active and standby chassis.
C. When the VSS active chassis recovers after a failure, it initiates a switchover and takes on the
active role again.
D. VSS unifies the control planes of the active and the standby chassis.
E. HSRP configuration is not required to run VSS.
F. The VSS standby chassis monitors the VSS active chassis using the VSL.
Which flag in a configuration BPDU instructs all switches to shorten their bridge table aging process from the default 300 seconds to the current forward delay value?
A. topology change bit
B. topology change acknowledgment bit
C. priority bit
D. max-age bit
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