[PDF&VCE] 400-101 New Questions For Passing The 400-101 Certification Exam (476-500)

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2016 October Cisco Official New Released 400-101 Dumps in Lead2pass.com!

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Following questions and answers are all new published by Cisco Official Exam Center: http://www.lead2pass.com/400-101.html

Which bit should be set in the link-state PDU of an IS-IS L1/L2 router to indicate that it is a potential exit point of the area?

A.    the ABR bit
B.    the ATT bit
C.    the down bit
D.    the P bit

Answer: B

MPLS LDP IGP synchronization is configured on a link. The OSPF adjacency on that link is UP but MPLS LDP synchronization is not achieved. Which statement about this scenario is true?

A.    The router excludes the link from its OSPF LSA type 1.
B.    The router flushes its own router LSA.
C.    The router advertises the link in its router LSA with max-metric.
D.    The router advertises an LSA type 2 for this link, with the metric set to max-metric.
E.    The router advertises the link and OSPF adjacency as it would when the synchronization is achieved.

Answer: C

What is the new designation for the MPLS EXP (experimental) bits?

A.    QoS bits
B.    traffic class bits
C.    flow bits
D.    precedence bits

Answer: B

Which two options are signaling protocols that are used in MPLS? (Choose two.)

A.    LDP
B.    RSVP
C.    BFD
D.    LISP
E.    CLNS
F.    CDP

Answer: AB

Which option is an incorrect design consideration when deploying OSPF areas?

A.    area 1 – area 0 – MPLS VPN backbone – area 0 – area 2
B.    area 1 – MPLS VPN backbone – area 2
C.    area 1 – MPLS VPN backbone – area 1
D.    area 2 – area 0 – MPLS VPN backbone – area 1
E.    area 0 – area 2 – MPLS VPN superbackbone – area 1

Answer: E

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the route target for is true?

A.    Its route target is 64512:100010051.
B.    Its route targets are 64512:100010051, 64512:2002250, and 64512:3002300.
C.    Its route target is 64512:3002300.
D.    Its route targets are 64512:100010051 and 64512:3002300.
E.    Its route targets are 64512:2002250 and 64512:3002300.

Answer: C

Which two options are benefits of EIGRP OTP? (Choose two.)

A.    It allows EIGRP routers to peer across a service provider without the service provider involvement.
B.    It allows the customer EIGRP domain to remain contiguous.
C.    It requires only minimal support from the service provider.
D.    It allows EIGRP neighbors to be discovered dynamically.
E.    It fully supports multicast traffic.
F.    It allows the administrator to use different autonomous system numbers per EIGRP domain.

Answer: AB

Which three options are best practices for implementing a DMVPN? (Choose three.)

A.    Use IPsec in tunnel mode.
B.    Implement Dead Peer Detection to detect communication loss.
C.    Configure AES for encryption of transported data.
D.    Configure SHA-1 for encryption of transported data.
E.    Deploy IPsec hardware acceleration to minimize router memory overhead.
F.    Configure QoS services only on the head-end router.

Answer: ABC

Which IPv6 tunneling type establishes a permanent link between IPv6 domains over IPv4?

A.    IPv4-compatible tunneling
B.    ISATAP tunneling
C.    6to4 tunneling
D.    manual tunneling

Answer: D

Which three components comprise the structure of a pseudowire FEC element? (Choose three.)

A.    pseudowire ID
B.    pseudowire type
C.    control word
D.    Layer 3 PDU
E.    header checksum
F.    type of service

Answer: ABC

In which two modes do IPv6-in-IPv4 tunnels operate? (Choose two.)

A.    tunnel mode
B.    transport mode
C.    6to4 mode
D.    4to6 mode
E.    ISATAP mode

Answer: AB

Which VPN technology requires the use of an external key server?

B.    GDOI
C.    SSL
E.    IPsec
F.    L2TPv3

Answer: A

Which three roles does a key server perform when used with GETVPN? (Choose three.)

A.    It authenticates group members.
B.    It manages security policies.
C.    It creates group keys.
D.    It distributes multicast replication policies.
E.    It distributes multicast replication keys.
F.    It configures and routes the GDOI protocol.

Answer: ABC

Which two Cisco IOS AAA features are available with the local database? (Choose two.)

A.    command authorization
B.    network access authorization
C.    network accounting
D.    network access authentication

Answer: AD

What is the most secure way to store ISAKMP/IPSec preshared keys in Cisco IOS?

A.    Use the service password-encryption command.
B.    Encrypt the ISAKMP preshared key in secure type 5 format.
C.    Encrypt the ISAKMP preshared key in secure type 7 format.
D.    Encrypt the ISAKMP preshared key in secure type 6 format.

Answer: D

Which two statements about the protected ports feature and the private VLAN feature are true? (Choose two.)

A.    The protected ports feature is limited to the local switch.
B.    The protected ports feature can isolate traffic between two “protected” ports on different switches.
C.    The private VLAN feature is limited to the local switch.
D.    The private VLAN feature prevents interhost communication within a VLAN across one or more switches.

Answer: AD

Which two features are used for inspection when IPv6 address glean is enabled? (Choose two.)

A.    DHCP messages
B.    ND messages
C.    ICMPv6 messages
D.    UDP messages
E.    TCP messages

Answer: AB

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the R1 configuration is true?

A.    It permits host to establish a Telnet connection to R1.
B.    It limits remote hosts to two SSH connection attempts.
C.    SSH connections to R1 will log out after a 5-minute idle interval.
D.    Hosts that reside on network can SSH to R1.
E.    The R1 timeout for outgoing SSH connection attempts is 30 seconds.

Answer: E

Which two statements about the default SNMP configuration are true? (Choose two.)

A.    The SNMP agent is enabled.
B.    The SNMP trap receiver is configured.
C.    All SNMP notification types are sent.
D.    SNMPv1 is the default version.
E.    SNMPv3 is the default version.

Answer: CD

Which two statements about logging are true? (Choose two.)

A.    Log messages are sent to the console port by default.
B.    Log messages are displayed in a Telnet session by default.
C.    Interface status changes are logged at the Notification level.
D.    Interface status changes are logged at the Informational level.
E.    System restart messages are logged at the Critical level.
F.    Reload requests are logged at the Notification level.

Answer: AC

Refer to the exhibit. Your network is suffering excessive output drops.
Which two actions can you take to resolve the problem? (Choose two.)

A.    Install a switch with larger buffers.
B.    Configure a different queue set.
C.    Reconfigure the switch buffers.
D.    Configure the server application to use TCP.
E.    Update the server operating system.

Answer: AB

Refer to the exhibit. If the remaining configuration uses default values, what is the expected output of the show mls qos queue- set command?


Answer: A

Which two statements about HSRP are true? (Choose two.)

A.    Its virtual MAC is 0000.0C07.Acxx.
B.    Its multicast virtual MAC is 0000.5E00.01xx.
C.    Its default configuration allows for pre-emption.
D.    It supports tracking.
E.    It supports unique virtual MAC addresses.

Answer: AD

Which two statements about the client-identifier in a DHCP pool are true? (Choose two.)

A.    It specifies a unique identifier that is used only for DHCP requests.
B.    It is specified by appending 01 to the MAC address of a DHCP client.
C.    It specifies a hardware address for the client.
D.    It specifies a unique identifier that is used only for BOOTP requests.
E.    It requires that you specify the hardware protocol.

Answer: AB

Refer to the exhibit. If router R1 is functioning as a DHCPv6 server and you enter the command show ipv6 dhcp binding, which two options are pieces of information in the output? (Choose two.)

A.    The IA PD
B.    The DUID
C.    The prefix pool
D.    The DNS server
E.    The Rapid-Commit setting

Answer: AB

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